When zeros at natural numbers implies zero everywhere

1 · John Cook · Jan. 12, 2024, 12:38 a.m.
Suppose a function f(z) equals 0 at z = 0, 1, 2, 3, …. Under what circumstances might you be able to conclude that f is zero everywhere? Clearly you need some hypothesis on f. For example, the function sin(πz) is zero at every integer but certainly not constantly zero. Carlson’s theorem says that if […] The post When zeros at natural numbers implies zero everywhere first appeared on John D. Cook....